[toj.cc]WildBillKickoff
New Member
A serious question that demands a serious answer.
Psalm 14 and Psalm 53 are almost identical. Quoted below:
As you can see, the only significant difference is that 14:6 and 53:5b, where 14:6 gives an example of how the subject is wicked, while 53:5b gives a consequence.
Did God repeat this message because it is that important? Was it simply a case of the folks that compiled Psalms accidentally repeating a song, like "Amazing Grace" being included twice in a hymnal? Does this call into question the infallibility of Scripture? Is Psalm 53 a later revision by David of one of his psalms, or is Psalm 14 the revised version?
Psalm 14 and Psalm 53 are almost identical. Quoted below:
Psalm 14 said:1 The fool says in his heart, ";God does not exist.";
They are corrupt; their actions are revolting.
There is no one who does good. 2 The Lord looks down from heaven on the human race
to see if there is one who is wise,
one who seeks God. 3 All have turned away;
all alike have become corrupt.
There is no one who does good,
not even one.
4 Will evildoers never understand?
They consume my people as they consume bread;
they do not call on the Lord. 5 Then they will be filled with terror,
for God is with those who are righteous. 6 You [sinners] frustrate the plans of the afflicted,
but the Lord is his refuge. 7 Oh, that Israel's deliverance would come from Zion!
When the Lord restores His captive people,
Jacob will rejoice; Israel will be glad.
Psalm 53 said:1 The fool says in his heart, ";God does not exist.";
They are corrupt, and they do vile deeds.
There is no one who does good. 2 God looks down from heaven on the human race
to see if there is one who is wise
and who seeks God. 3 Everyone has turned aside;
they have all become corrupt.
There is no one who does good,
not even one. 4 Will evildoers never understand?
They consume My people as they consume bread;
they do not call on God. 5 Then they will be filled with terror-
terror like no other -
because God will scatter
the bones of those who besiege you.
You will put them to shame,
for God has rejected them. 6 Oh, that Israel's deliverance would come from Zion!
When God restores His captive people,
Jacob will rejoice; Israel will be glad.
As you can see, the only significant difference is that 14:6 and 53:5b, where 14:6 gives an example of how the subject is wicked, while 53:5b gives a consequence.
Did God repeat this message because it is that important? Was it simply a case of the folks that compiled Psalms accidentally repeating a song, like "Amazing Grace" being included twice in a hymnal? Does this call into question the infallibility of Scripture? Is Psalm 53 a later revision by David of one of his psalms, or is Psalm 14 the revised version?